Not sure if I'm over- or under-thinking this, but I've always wondered. Example: I like DDB. How does 9/6 single play differ from, say, five-play? I know the pay table is the same, but are the percentages different in expected win/loss? It seems like the whole "being able to hold dealt cards for all hands" would affect the actual odds, but I guess it could also be some sort of "you're betting five times as often as single play, so somehow the odds don't actually change" scenario. Feel free to link to a good article if you have it, or reply with a simple explanation, if possible.