All of the discussion lately of the degeneration of Blackjack odds from 3:2 to 6:5 got me thinking: How did 3:2 BJ come about? I mean, how did they figure 3:2 odds are what they'll pay on Blackjacks? Why not 2:1 or 5:1 or 20:1? Craps true odds are figured on the combinations of numbers on the dice which is pretty easy to grasp. But I think it's because I love to play craps so naturally I'll learn as much as I can about every aspect of the game. I admit I'm not interested in Blackjack and only played a couple of times until I realized it's not for me. Can anyone explain how the 3:2 payouts came about? Does it have something to do with the 52 card deck and the amts. of "10" cards are in it? I apologize if this seems like a lame question, but...there it is!