Okay this happened over a month ago but my brother-in-law and I still can’t come to an agreement over who won this bet. The Players: My brother-in-law. He’s English, so he knows and loves soccer/football. But, he’s not much of a gambler. Me. I’m American, so I knew nothing of the sport until I got an English BIL. But, I am a degenerate gambler and know my way around a sports book…though, I’ve never bet soccer before. The Bet: Spain vs. Portugal in the Euro Championship this summer. He had Spain. I had Portugal, but I made him give me one goal. The Results: Scoreless draw after regulation and overtime. Spain won on penalty kicks, 3-1. The Argument: I say the game ended in a draw – therefore, I win as Spain did not cover. Spain merely advanced on PKs. After all, the newspapers, the internet, ESPN…all listed the score as 0-0 with “Spain advances on PKs” listed parenthetically. He says that the PKs count and that the final score was 3-1. Therefore, Spain did cover and he wins. So…who owes whom dinner?